I hope it isn’t true, but it’s the only plausible reason that has made sense to me so far.
it's not making sense to me - he supposedly went through this during his teens. he was 40 so are you saying he was still going through it? it didn't work and it was still bothering him?

I thought that he was diagnosed as suffering from clinical depression?
Anyways, he must have been in terrible pain.
right and then all these "theories" as usual about money lost and now this conversion therapy. i keep seeing different articles that are coming up with something new as the reason!